1. Which of the following actions BEST illustrates HR's strategic role in the organization?
( ) A. Institute radical changes in the organization.
( ) B. Monitor and ensure compliance with change.
( ) C. Influence and affect management's view on organizational change.
( ) D. Deal with resistance to organizational change.
2. An organization decides to develop a corporate citizenship program that gives employees time off to volunteer at a homeless shelter. A company task force creates a list of goals that the program hopes to accomplish. In which management function is the task force engaged?
( ) A. Planning
( ) B. Organizing
( ) C. Directing
( ) D. Controlling
3. A project manager who works to build team norms and foster harmony is assuming which responsibility?
( ) A. Informational
( ) B. Interpersonal
( ) C. Conceptual
( ) D. Decisional
4. A project manager would be more inclined to use a PERT chart rather than a Gantt chart when the manager needs to
( ) A. assign particular tasks to team members.
( ) B. monitor the exact time that each step of the project takes.
( ) C. plan the details of the project.
( ) D. show the critical path of a project.
5. The change process goes more smoothly when
( ) A. senior management announces changes to the employees.
( ) B. employees have input into change alternatives.
( ) C. HR is responsible for the change initiative.
( ) D. change is critical to the organization's survival.
6. Which of the following is the first step in the outsourcing process?
( ) A. Define the budget.
( ) B. Outline the implementation process.
( ) C. Create a request for proposal.
( ) D. Conduct a needs analysis.
7. Which of the following is likely to be a result of continued advances in technology?
( ) A. Training will be available only to those with high-speed Internet access and voice-activated computers.
( ) B. Privacy issues will be eliminated by security advances such as iris and fingerprint scans.
( ) C. In-house software will become increasingly desirable as application service providers become less flexible.
( ) D. Electronic signatures will expand the types of transactions that can be done on the Web.
8. Strategic planning starts with an organization's
( ) A. mission statement.
( ) B. environmental scan.
( ) C. human resources inventory.
( ) D. needs assessment.
9. Which of the following takes both an internal and external snapshot of the organization?
( ) A. SWOT analysis
( ) B. Environmental scan
( ) C. Human resources inventory
( ) D. Human resource audit
10. Which of the following is true of short-term objectives?
( ) A. They create direction and synergy for the organization.
( ) B. They establish priorities for allocating resources.
( ) C. They must be created before unit strategies can be developed.
( ) D. They take the place of action plans.
11. Which of the following is typically part of an environmental scan?
( ) A. Analysis of the organization's labor contract
( ) B. Analysis of minority employees within the organization
( ) C. Review of internal salary survey data
( ) D. Analysis of unemployment rates
12. Which of the following is true of a balance sheet?
( ) A. It includes transactions without a definite monetary value.
( ) B. It indicates the net income of the company.
( ) C. It summarizes an organization's assets, liabilities, and equity.
( ) D. It measures the difference between the cost to produce a product and the price for which it is sold.
13. Of the four elements associated with marketing, which includes supply chain management?
( ) A. Product
( ) B. Place
( ) C. Price
( ) D. Promotion
14. Which of the following is a key responsibility of the operations function within an organization?
( ) A. Ensuring that the product is priced profitably
( ) B. Communicating the benefits of the product to customers
( ) C. Deciding which features and benefits will appeal to customers
( ) D. Determining the ability of the company to meet product demand
15. Which of the following is a primary advantage of the balanced scorecard?
( ) A. It separates business strategy from day-to-day activities.
( ) B. It relates the performance of business functions to the organization's mission.
( ) C. It focuses on financial measurements and hard data results.
( ) D. It tracks progress against goals without raising accountability issues.
16. Which of the following statements about Title VII of the Civil Rights Act is true?
( ) A. All employees must have equal working conditions.
( ) B. Discrimination against race and sexual orientation is prohibited.
( ) C. Employers must provide sexual harassment training for all employees.
( ) D. Employees must have an equal opportunity to participate in training.
17. According to the ADEA, which of the following statements is true?
( ) A. High-level managers have no mandatory requirements for retirement.
( ) B.A company may discontinue pension accruals for employees over age 65.
( ) C. Employers may fire an employee over age 40 for good cause.
( ) D. Employers do not need to offer insurance to employees covered by Medicare.
18. The ADA applies to
( ) A. employers with 15 or more employees.
( ) B. employers with 25 or more employees.
( ) C. employers who contract with the federal government.
( ) D. all employers, regardless of the size of the company.
19. Under the ADA, which of the following statements is true?
( ) A. Pre-employment medical examinations may be required before a job offer is extended.
( ) B. Employers must set affirmative action plans for the disabled.
( ) C. Employers do not need to accommodate a disability if it results in undue hardship.
( ) D. Rehabilitated drug users are excluded by the law.
20. A qualified applicant who has performed a similar job in the past is refused employment by a company because of a history of nervous breakdowns. Under Title I of the ADA, the company should
( ) A. hire the applicant but require a psychiatric exam.
( ) B. hire the applicant since the applicant is qualified for the position.
( ) C. refuse to hire the applicant because of the risk of negligent hiring.
( ) D. refuse to hire the applicant for this position but find another position in the company.
21. The ADA does NOT protect an employee who I V
( ) A. uses illegal drugs.
( ) B. has epilepsy.
( ) C. has AIDS.
( ) D. has serious psychological problems.
22. Identity and right to work can be verified by a
( ) A. U. S. passport.
( ) B. voter's registration card.
( ) C. U.S. Social Security card.
( ) D. U.S. citizen ID card.
23. Which of the following procedurally assists employers in complying with federal regulations against discrimination?
( ) A. Executive Order 11246
( ) B. Congressional Accountability Act
( ) C. Title VII, Civil Rights Act
( ) D. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
24. Under the WARN Act, what type of notice must an employer provide?
( ) A. 30 days' notice if 500 full- and part-time employees at one site will be laid off
( ) B. 60 days' notice if33% of full-time employees at one site will be laid off
( ) C. 60 days' notice if500 full- and part-time employees will be laid off
( ) D. 90 days' notice if a layoff is considered permanent
25. Which of the following statements about the Privacy Act of 1974 is true?
( ) A. It establishes the concept of just cause.
( ) B. It protects federal employees from unauthorized disclosure of information.
( ). C. It establishes the concept of due process.
( ) D. It lists all federal laws pertaining to record keeping.
26. Which of the following is an example of disparate treatment?
( ) A. Members of a protected group are subject to stricter attendance rules.
( ) B. A neutral staffing practice results in discrimination against protected groups.
( ) C. Height restrictions are set for all security guards.
( ) D. All employees are required to take an intelligence test.
27. Which of the following court cases established the criteria for disparate impact?
( ) A. Washington v. Davis
( ) B.• Griggs v. Duke Power
( ) C. Albemarle Paper v. Moody
( ) D. McDonnell Douglas Corp. v. Green
28. An organization determines the demographic composition of its workforce by jobs that are similar content, responsibilities, wage rates, and opportunity for advancement. This is a(n)
( ) A. organizational profile.
( ) B. job group- analysis.
( ) C. availability analysis.
( ) D. workforce analysis.
29. An organization must set a placement goal when it
( ) A. employs a smaller number of women or minorities than is indicated by their availability .
( ) B. assigns women or minorities to jobs that are not challenging.
( ) C. is unable to determine the ethnicity of its applicants.
( ) D. experiences adverse impact in hiring practices.
30. When a qualified white male is denied an opportunity because preference is given to a member of a protected group, it is known as
( ) A. reasonable accommodation.
( ) B. reverse discrimination.
( ) C. quota system.
( ) D. undue hardship.
31. Which of the following explains why employers are responsible for the discriminatory acts of their supervisors?
( ) A. Vicarious liability
( ) B. Hostile environment
( ) C. Quid pro quo
( ) D. Reverse discrimination
32. An employee files a discrimination charge and is laid off a shprt time later due to a downturn in the company’s business. In this situation, the employer could be accused of
( ) A. Sexual harassment
( ) B. Retaliatory discharge
( ) C. Involuntary retirement
( ) D. Constructive discharge
33. Content validity is the extent to which a selection device measures
( ) A. Differences between good performance and bad performance
( ) B. personality trait that are related to job performance
( ) C. Knowledge, skills, and ability used on the job
( ) D. experience as a predictor of job success
34. In which of the following types of interviews is each applicants asked the same questions
( ) A. Patterned
( ) B. Nondirective
( ) C. Structured
( ) D. Behavioral
35. Employees are given a chance to indicate an interest in announced position through
( ) A. Job posting
( ) B. Skill tracking
( ) C. succession planning
( ) D. job analysis
36. A job function is usually considered essential if it
( ) A. can be performed by many employees
( ) B. requires highly specialized skills
( ) C. is performed infrequently
( ) D. can be completed quickly
37. The three key elements included in a job analysis are
( ) A. Tasks, responsibilities, reporting structure
( ) B. Knowledge, skills, and abilities
( ) C. Competences, qualifications, ambition
( ) D. pay range, essential job functions, reporting structure
38. Which of the following is a written summery of the work to be done
( ) A. Job description
( ) B. Job specification
( ) C. Job content
( ) D. Job ranking
39. Which of the following methods resulted in lower turnover among employees?
( ) A. Walk-ins
( ) B. Advertisement
( ) C. Employee referrals
( ) D. College placement offices
40. Interview bias in which candidate assessed positively just because he was interviewed after week candidate
( ) A. negative emphasis
( ) B. culture noise
( ) C. contrast effect
( ) D. halo effect
41. Which of the following learning activities would appeal primarily to an auditory learner?
( ) A. Diagrams and illustrated handouts
( ) B. Group activities and model building
( ) C. Lecture and review tapes
( ) D. Video demonstrations and field trips
42. Which of the following learning curves describes how most routine tasks are learned?
( ) A. Plateau
( ) B. S-shaped
( ) C. Increasing returns
( ) D. Decreasing returns
43. Which of the following learning curves illustrates how a trainee learns the basics of a new, complex skill?
( )A. Plateau
( ) B. S-shaped
( ) C. Increasing returns
( ) D. Decreasing returns
44. At the end of the first day of a sales training seminar, a representative is able to list the five steps in the selling skills model. This is evidence of which level of learning?
( ) A. Application
( ) B. Analysis
( ) C. Knowledge
( ) D. Synthesis
45. A mechanic is sent to an emissions school to learn the latest trouble-shooting techniques. The goal of the training is to prepare lead mechanics to train other shop mechanics. The training must be focused at what level in order to accomplish this goal?
( ) A. Analysis
( ) B. Application
( ) C. Evaluation
( ) D. Synthesis
46. At which level of cognitive learning is an employee able to make judgments as to which manufacturing process produces better results?
( ) A. Application
( ) B. Analysis
( ) C. Evaluation
( ) D. Synthesis
47. Vroom's expectancy theory states-that
( ) A. employees dislike rigid controls and want to accomplish something.
( ) B. employees' effort is related to the likelihood of perceived success.
( ) C. employees work to meet their physical and social needs.
( ) D. employees are likely to quit their jobs if treated unfairly.
48. Which of the following is an example of reinforcement according to a fixed ratio?
( ) A. Monthly paycheck
( ) B. Occasional praise
( ) C. Sales commission
( ) D. Yearly review
49. Which of the following BEST describes an organizational needs assessment?
( ) A. It uses employee interviews to determine training needs.
( ) B. It identifies how well individuals perform their jobs.
( ) C. It compares job requirements and employee knowledge and skills.
( ) D. It identifies the KSAs employees will need in the future.
50. Which of the following statements about a good training objective is true?
( ) A. It includes the consequences of not meeting the objective.
( ) B. It states what a trainee will be able to do as a result of training.
( ) C. It states the role that management will play in the training.
( ) D. It includes directions for meeting the objective.
51. A company purchases new billing software that will be used by its customer service and accounting departments, Which of the following training methods will be MOST effective in training employees to use the new system?
( ) A. Reading and a PowerPoint presentation
( ) B. Group discussion and structured exercises
( ) C. Demonstration and structured exercises
( ) D. Reading and case study
52. Which of the following is NOT a goal of orientation?
( ) A. To provide remedial skills training
( ) B. To establish relationships with coworkers
( ) C. To understand company policies and procedures
( ) D. To gain a feeling of belonging
53. What is the MOST important reason for conducting an internal marketing campaign for a new training program?
( ) A. It protects a company from charges of discrimination.
( ) B. It makes HRD more visible to the organization.
( ) C. It increases employee motivation to participate.
( ) D. It increases the company's reputation in the marketplace.
54. A training specialist is able to show that training has decreased turnover by 10%. At what level has the training been evaluated?
( ) A. Learning
( ) B. Results
( ) C. Reaction
( ) D. Behavior
55. What is the difference between career management and career planning?
( ) A. Career management focuses on the organization's needs; career planning focuses on the individual's needs.
( ) B. Career management assesses career paths within the organization; career planning focuses on building a pool of workers qualified for specific assignments.
( ) C. Career management assumes that employees are responsible for planning their own careers; career planning assumes that the company is responsible for planning employee careers.
( ) D. Career management is based on communication between managers and employees; career planning is done by the employee alone.
56. An organization is concerned that managers have too many employees reporting to them and too many employees who report to more than one manager, hindering efficiency and resulting in conflicting goals. Which type of OD strategy will address this problem?
( ) A. Interpersonal
( ) B. Technological
( ) C. Structural
( ) D. Process
57. Which of the following theorists defines quality as fitness to use, which emphasizes the reliability of a product or service?
( ) A. Juran
( ) B. Deming
( ) C. Crosby
( ) D. Baldrige
58. Which of the following quality tools shows how each item contributes to the total effect and allows users to focus on the frequency or impact of causes?
( ) A. Run chart
( ) B. Control chart
( ) C. Histogram
( ) D. Pareto chart
59. An interviewer believes that older workers are more difficult to train and make more mistakes than younger workers. This form of performance appraisal error is
( ) A. deficiency.
( ) B. contamination.
( ) C. bias.
( ) D. conflict.
60. An employee who is good at answering customer questions on technical software is not good at completing paperwork or working with fellow employees. In spite of this, the employee is rated highly in all performance categories. What performance appraisal error has occurred?
( ) A. Recency
( ) B. Halo effect
( ) C. Bias
( ) D. Leniency
61. A learning organization is an organization that
( ) A. encourages each department to function independently.
( ) B. advocates internal rather than external networking.
( ) C. takes responsibility for the learning of its employees.
( ) D. manages change and adapts to its environment.
62. Exempt status would include a manager who
( ) A. makes less than $455 per week.
( ) B. directs five people and has hiring and firing responsibility.
( ) C. receives overtime pay during a particularly busy work period.
( ) D. is docked for less than one full day away from the job.
63. Which of the following is NOT regulated by the FLSA?
( ) A. Exempt status
( ) B. Employee benefits
( ) C. Minimum wage
( ). D. Overtime pay
64. For private-sector nonexempt employees, how must overtime be paid?
( ) A. In cash at a rate of one and one-halftimes the regular rate of pay
( ) B. In compensatory time off at a rate of one and one-half hours for every overtime hour
( ) C. In cash or compensatory time, as determined by the employee
( ) D. In cash or compensatory time, as determined by the employer
65. A state's minimum wage is $7.50 in comparison to the federal minimum wage of$7.25. An employer in this state must pay employees
( ) A. $7.25.
( ) B. $7.50.
( ) C. an average of the two amounts.
( ) D. any amount over $7.25.
66. An employee arrives at work a half hour early, makes coffee for herself, and reads the morning paper at her desk until it is time to start work. Must the employee be paid for this time?
(.. ) A. No, since the employee is not doing work
( ) B. No, as long as the employee leaves work one-half hour early
( ) C. Yes, since the employee is at her desk
( ) D. Yes, unless the employee has permission to come in early
67. According to the Equal Pay Act, employers must
(.. ) A. reduce the pay of employees to equalize pay between the sexes
( ) B. pay women and men the same pay for the same work
( ) C. pay rates set by union contracts even if there are inequities
( ) D. pay similarly for jobs requiring comparable skills and knowledge
68. Which of the following legislation encourages employers to hire targeted groups of job seekers?
(.. ) A. Walsh-Healey Act
( ) B ADEA
( ) C. Service Contract Act
( ) D. Work Opportunity Tax Credit
69. To qualify under ERISA, a pension plan must
( ) A. be explained verbally to employees.
( ) B. allow special provisions for highly compensated executives.
( ) C. include a vesting schedule.
( ) D. allow all employees to participate.
70. An employee who is on FMLA leave because of a serious health condition decides not to return to work at the end of 12 weeks. In this situation, the
( ) A. employer may not charge the employee for any health insurance premiums paid on behalf of the employee while the employee was on leave.
( ) B. employee is entitled to maintain health benefit coverage for 18 months from the date the leave began.
( ) C. employee may extend the leave for as long as necessary, with the approval of a physician.
( ) D. employee is entitled to maintain health benefit coverage for 18 months from the date the leave expired.
71. An employee's son is no longer eligible for coverage under the company's health plan. According to COBRA regulations, the dependent is eligible for how many months of insurance continuation?
( ) A. 18
( ) B. 29
( ) C. 36
( ) D. 48
72. What is the weighted average of the following salaries?
Salaries Number of Incumbents
$20,000 2
$30,000 1
$35,000 2
$40,000 1
( ) A. $25,000.
( ) B. $30,000.
( ) C. $31,250.
( ) D $35,000
73. Which of the following does NOT impact the number of pay grades within an organization?
( ) A. Size of the organization
( ) B. Organization's pay position in the marketplace
( ) C. Vertical distance between highest- and lowest-level jobs
( ) D. Organization's pay increase and promotion policies
74. The concept of broad-banding was developed to
( ) A. limit the autonomy of line managers.
( ) B. reduce employee mobility within the organization.
( ) C. work with flatter organizational structures.
( ) D. provide narrower salary ranges.
75. Which of the following is generally NOT a function of the payroll department?
( ) A. Calculating Social Security and Medicare tax
( ) B. Keeping a master file of employment records for the federal government
( ) C. Deducting garnishments and tax levies
( ) D. Contracting for pay surveys
76. Which of the following statements about a single-rate pay system is true?
( ) A. It provides opportunity for progression within a grade.
( ) B. It is typically used for exempt jobs.
( ) C. It disregards performance or seniority.
( ) D. It is not applicable in a union environment.
77. Which pay system is best suited to routine jobs where worker qualifications increase over U time?
( ) A. Productivity-based
( ) B. Time-based
( ) C. Single-rate
( ) D. Performance-based
78. A clerk is paid $9.50 an hour when the pay range for the assigned grade is $8 to $9 an hour. This is referred to as a
( ) A. green-circle rate.
( ) B. pay differential.
( ) C. red-circle rate.
( ) D. compressed salary.
79. Which of the following compensates employees who arrive at work but find that no work is available?
( ) A. On-call pay
( ) B. Reporting pay
( ) C. Premium pay
( ) D. Travel pay
80. Which of the following goals is in the line of sight for computer programmers at a software development firm?
( ) A. Reduce time to market for software products.
( ) B. Reduce defects in CD-ROM production.
( ) C. Improve communication with customers.
( ) D. Strengthen brand image in the marketplace.
81. A bonus paid to an employee based upon a management judgment made at the end of a time period is referred to as
( ) A. performance-based.
( ) B. discretionary.
( ) C. formula-based.
( ) D. service-based.
82. Which of the following is considered direct pay and immediately taxable?
( ) A. Deferred profit-sharing plans
( ) B. Non-leveraged ESOPs
( ) C. Cash profit-sharing plans
( ) D. Restricted stock grants
83. Which of the following statements about Medicare is true?
( ) A. Parts A and B of Medicare are mandatory.
( ) B. Eligibility is dependent on a person's income and ability to pay.
( ) C. Only retired individuals age 65 and over are eligible.
( ) D. Medicare is secondary for employees over 65 covered by another health plan.
84. Which of the following statements about workers' compensation is true?
( ) A. It covers all workers' health problems.
( ) B. It is funded by employers and regulated by the federal government.
( ) C. It is paid even if an accident is the employee's fault.
( ) D. It pays all injured workers the same benefits.
85. Workers' compensation is regulated by the
( ) A. U.S. Department of Labor.
( ) B. states.
( ) C. private insurance companies.
( ) D. Social Security Administration.
86. A company that offers a defined benefit plan to its employees and funds the plan using a final-pay formula bases benefits on
( ) A. a set dollar amount for each year of service under the plan.
( ) B. a percentage of the average earnings of the employee over the years of the plan.
( ) C. average earnings for a specified number of years at the end of the employee's career.
( ) D. a percentage of pay for each year of plan participation.
87. Which of the following is true about a cash balance plan?
( ) A. Money deposited into the account has already been taxed.
( ) B. Benefits are not affected by decreases in the fund.
( ) C. Employees assume the investment risk of the plan.
( ) D. Employees are required to take a lifetime annuity at retirement.
88. Which of the following statements about defined contribution plans is true?
( ) A. Employees have an ongoing responsibility to contribute to the plan.
( ) B. Employees of not- for-profit or public-sector organizations are not eligible.
( ) C. Employers have an obligation to make a minimum contribution to the plan.
( ) D. Employees assume risk in relation to how well the plan does.
89. Which of the following is a retirement savings plan for employees of certain tax-exempt organizations such as public schools and hospitals?
( ) A. 457 plans
( ) B. 403(b) plans
( ) C. Money purchase plans
( ) D. Section 125 plans
90. What is the advantage of nonqualified deferred compensation plans?
( ) A. They allow all company employees to contribute more than the limits prescribed by qualified plans.
( ) B. They are not subject to ERlSA and are protected from creditors.
( ) C. They provide incentives for key management to stay with the organization.
( ) D. They provide more favorable tax advantages to employers than qualified plans.
91. Which of the following managed care plans will not cover any services provided outside of the network? .
( ) A. EPO
( ) B. PPO
( ) C. POS
( ) D. PPA
92. Which of the following statements about long-term disability protection is generally true?
( ) A. It is integrated with Social Security benefits.
( ) B. It expires after 26 weeks of disability.
( ) C. It becomes effective once an employee's sick-leave benefits expire.
( ) D. It covers both work- and non-work-related injuries.
93. The MOST basic reason employees join unions is to
( ) A. belong to a group with similar goals and ideals.
( ) B. help guarantee a safe, secure work environment.
( ) C. exercise their leadership abilities.
( ) D. fulfill their needs for self-esteem.
94. Which of the following laws restricts arbitrary injunctions against nonviolent union activity?
( ) A. Taft-Hartley Act
( ) B. Labor-Management Reporting and Disclosure Act
( ) C. Norris-LaGuardia Act
( ) D. Railway Labor Act
95. Which of the following is prohibited by the NLRA?
( ) A. Arbitrary injunctions
( ) B. Collective bargaining
( ) C. Employer domination of unions
( ) D. Yellow-dog contracts
96. An organization analyzes an assembly-line job, determines the most efficient assembly process, and institutes this process throughout the organization. This is an example of
( ) A. standardization.
( ) B. specialization.
( ) C. job rotation.
( ) D. division of labor.
97. Task significance is the extent to which a job
( ) A. A. offers workers freedom and autonomy.
( ) B. is meaningful and important to others.
( ) C. requires completion of a "whole" unit of work.
( ) D. requires clear and direct feedback.
98. A consulting company recently changed its vacation and leave policies and wants to know how employees feel about the changes. Its 500 employees are located in 40 locations throughout the U.S. and western Europe. Which of the following survey methods is likely to yield the highest response rate and best data?
( ) A. Online survey
( ) B. Telephone survey
( ) C. Fax survey
( ) D. Mail survey
99. A detailed, step-by-step description of a company's customary method of handling activities is a
( ) A. policy.
( ) B. procedure.
( ) C. rule.
( ) D. vision.
100. A supervisor counsels an employee about frequent tardiness. In spite of discussions, the employee is late for work twice the following week. What should be the next step in the disciplinary process?
( ) A. Give the employee an oral warning.
( ) B. Give the employee a written warning.
( ) C. Give the employee time off without pay.
( ) D. Terminate the employee.
101. In voluntary arbitration, both parties must
( ) A. agree to consider the judgment of the arbitrator.
( ) B. waive their rights to appeal the award.
( ) C. agree to a time frame for settlement of the dispute.
( ) D. accept the decision of the arbitrator as binding.
102. When paid union organizers infiltrate a company and begin organizing efforts, this process is known as
( ) A. leafleting.
( ) B. organizational picketing.
( ) C. salting.
( ) D. campaigning.
103. Union recognition is traditionally a result of
( ) A. an NLRB-ordered election.
( ) B. an NLRB order resulting from an employer ULP
( ) C. voluntary recognition by the employer.
( ) D. a management count of the authorization cards.
104. Who determines whether a proposed bargaining unit is appropriate?
( ) A. Mediator
( ) B. NLRB
( ) C. Union leaders
( ) D. Employer
105. An agreement between an employer and the union to waive the pre-election hearing is called a
( ) A. consent election.
( ) B. directed election.
( ) C. voter eligibility election.
( ) D. waiver election.
106. Union decertification provides a mechanism for
( ) A. employers to bring unfair labor practice charges against unions.
( ) B. employees to terminate a union that negotiates an ineffective contract.
( ) C. unions to give up their right to represent a bargaining unit.
( ) D. employees to remove a union's authority to enforce union security clauses.
107. It is within the employer's rights to do which of the following?
( ) A. Take pictures of employees going to and from union meetings
( ) B. Question employees about union membership or activities
( ) C. Provide preferential treatment to one of several unions trying to organize employees
( ) D. Point out a union's strike history and the economic consequences of strikes
108. Which of the following requires workers who do not join a union to pay the equivalent of union dues?
( ) A. Closed shop
( ) B. Dues check off
( ) C. Agency shop
( ) D. No-lockout
109. Which of the following is usually considered a lawful practice?
( ) A. Featherbedding
( ) B. Slowdowns
( ) C. Wildcat strikes
( ) D. Sympathy strikes
110. Strikes that occur without the approval of union leadership are called
( ) A. jurisdictional strikes.
( ) B. wildcat strikes.
( ) C. sympathy strikes.
( ) D. economic strikes.
111. OSHA's General Duty Clause requires that
( ) A. employees report unsafe working conditions to OSHA.
( ) B. employers provide hazard-free work environments
( ) C. employers develop standards if none exist for their industries.
( ) D. employees need not report for duty if their safety is at risk.
112. OSHA gives employees the right to
( ) A. file an unfair labor practice charge.
( ) B. request an OSHA investigation
( ) C. override employer safety procedures.
( ) D. refuse to wear safety equipment
113. Which of the following OSHA standards is known as the Employee Right-to-Know Law?
( ) A. Occupational Noise Exposure
( ) B. Control of Hazardous Energy
( ) C. Personal Protective Equipment
( ) D. Hazard Communication
114. An MSDS contains which of the following?
( ) A. Results of hearing exams
( ) B. Lockout and tag out signs
( ) C. Procedures for handling hazardous substances
( ) D. Mine site inspection reports
115. Which of the following has FIRST priority for inspection?
( ) A. Catastrophes and fatal accidents
( ) B. Employee complaints
( ) C. High-hazard industries
( ) D. Imminent danger
116. Which of the following OSHA violations is the LEAST serious?
( ) A. Repeat
( ) B. Other-than-serious
( ) C. De minimis
( ) D. Willful
117. Which of the following is the MOST important step in creating a strong safety culture?
( ) A. Involving employees and top management in the creation of safety policies
( ) B. Holding the line organization responsible for safety
( ) C. Providing employee incentives for meeting safety goals
( ) D. Allowing workers to file safety complaints
118. Which of the following is NOT within the responsibility of the safety committee?
( ) A. Conduct area safety inspections and evaluate hazards
( ) B. Observe employees for compliance with protective measures
( ) C. Review accident and injury data.
( ) D. Complete OSHA paperwork for accidents and illnesses.
119. After an employee removes a machine guard to keep the machine from jamming, he cuts his finger and requires medical treatment. This is an example of an
( ) A. unsafe act
( ) B. unsafe condition
( ) C. unrecognized hazard
( ) D. unsafe work assignment
120. Which of the following will be MOST effective in protecting proprietary information?
( ) A. Confidentiality and nondisclosure agreements
( ) B. Prohibition of employee-installed software
( ) C. Installation of surveillance cameras
( ) D. Banning of Internet and e-mail access for employees
